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Re: John 4.7 and the imperative

I think this only came to me.  I am forwarding it to the list.  Sorry if it
is a duplicate.
David John Marotta, Medical Center Computing, Stacey Hall
Univ of Virginia (804) 982-3718 wrk INTERNET: djm5g@virginia.edu
Box 512 Med Cntr (804) 924-5261 msg   BITNET: djm5g@virginia
C'ville VA 22908 (804) 296-7209 fax   IBM US: usuvarg8
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From: "R. Glenn Wooden" <rgw1@st-andrews.ac.uk>
Date: Sat, 27 Mar 93 15:03:22 GMT
Message-Id: <1580.9303271503@psy3.st-andrews.ac.uk>
To: nt-greek-request@virginia.edu
Subject: Re: John 4.7 and the imperative


> My question concerning how Jesus's imperative statement in John 4.7
> "give me to drink" could have been interpreted by the woman
> stems from the idea that he was powerless to get the water and needed
> her help.  So, then, would his imperative be seen by her as her
> obligation to serve him as a man, i.e. Jesus was using his authority
> as a male over her, or could his statement be interpreted as
> Jesus simply relying on her mercy to help him, not as a command?
>.................................
>             David Headly
>          "headly@fsunuc.physics.fsu.edu"

It has already been noted that Jesus would have spoken a dialect of
Aramaic.  In its relative, Hebrew, specifically in the Psalms, the
writers often give YHWH command, i.e., they use the imperative.  It
seems the imperative could be used for intense requests.

Glenn Wooden

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