Re: Luke 23:43

• To: Dvdmoore@aol.com
• Subject: Re: Luke 23:43
• From: robert westmoreland <rwestmor@silver.ucs.indiana.edu>
• Date: Wed, 5 Oct 1994 10:25:00 -0500 (EST)
• Cc: b-greek@virginia.edu
• In-Reply-To: <9410051024.tn388818@aol.com> from "Dvdmoore@aol.com" at Oct 5, 94 10:24:23 am

> 
>      The exegetical point that I recall seeing somewhere on this passage is
> that a placing of SHMERON before the comma would be pleonastic.  I.e., would
> anyone say "today I say to you..." when it is more than obvious that, if one
> is present when the words are spoken, the speaker has spoken them "today"?
> 
> David L. Moore
> 
A pleonastic utterance is not necessarily w/o content.
In the present context, for example, one might think that the crucified
criminal would have to wait until Judgement Day, but in fact his salvation
is already certain. "Today I [am able to] say to you ...". I am not advocating
this view of the sentence, merely pointing out that the charge of redundancy
is not a forceful argument for the contray view.

Robert Westmoreland

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