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Re: Man born blind
On Sat, Oct 15, David C. wrote
>Does anyone have an explanation for John 9:2 other than a belief in some
>sort of transmigration of souls or reincarnation? It is the tale of the
>"man born blind," concerning whom the disciples asked, "Hrabbi, tis>
>hEmarten, houtos E hoi goneis autou, hina tuphlos gennEthE?"(Rabbi, who
>sinned, this man or his parents, so that he was born blind?).
Reincarnation? Hardly. There is clear precedent in the Prophets like
Jeremiah and Ezekiel for children suffering for their parents' sins
( I don't have the verse off hand, but look in a corcordance for
"The fathers have eaten sour grapes and the children's teeth are set on edge."
Some will probably disagree with me, but this seems to me to be much more in
line with the notion of solidarity or corporate personality, as seen in the
Achen story in Joshua. It also reflects the prevalent notion expressed but
repudiated in Job of temporal retribution: you sin, you suffer. Jesus seems
clearly to reject this doctrine, as does the author of Job, and Paul for that
matter -- if you understand his view of grace correctly). It is firmly rooted
in OT/Jewish ideas, and certainly not those of Asian religions.
Ken Litwak
Richmond, CA
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