[Prev][Next][Index][Thread]
Re: Divorce and Remarriage/Mat. 5:32
On Thu, 20 Oct 1994, GARY D. COLLIER wrote:
> 1. So what is the possible Aramaic wording?
> 2. Does the LXX typically translate the Hiphil in this fashion?
> 3. What sources do you recommend for further study on Aramaic
> background to the Gospels?
> In fact, on point #3, I would be interested in seeing a long list of
> books/articles on this topic. I am aware of Matthew Black's book,
> and a couple of things by J. Fitzmyer, but it has been a while since
> I looked at anything here.
I too would be interested in more comment on Aramaic backgrounds. I was
reluctant to get into this thread but I thought I could intervene here.
What would also be helpful might be to glance at the Syriac translations of
this passage and see exactly what verb form is used to render the Greek -
that would at least demonstrate how the Semitic speakers understood the
passage in their own terms (this would of course only be one small piece
of evidence). I myself only have access to a later Peshitta edition -
maybe someone else can present an older version's rendering. Comparisons
with the Vulgate and Gothic and Coptic etc. would also provide the
evidence of how other languages interpreted this passage - which would at
least bring us back to the 4th century at least. The trouble is that by
the 4th century atttitudes toward this issue may very well have been
hardening into a position unrepresentative of that of the NT writers.
Greg Jordan
jordan@chuma.cas.usf.edu
Follow-Ups:
References: