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preverbs

Bernard Coulie writes: "The weakening of the preverb's meaning is considered
to be one of the koine
features, leading to the creation of verbs with two (or more) preverbs,
these being then considered as witnesses of a more vernacular level of
language."

Though it wouldn't surprise me if this were true, is anyone aware of research
which has established it as fact.  My interest in "preverb stacking" actually
began when reading Herodotus.  My sense was that it was just as common there
as in any Koine literature. Am I off on this subjective judgment?

Lindsay Whaley
Dartmouth College
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