Re: Jn. 1:1c

• To: b-greek@virginia.edu
• Subject: Re: Jn. 1:1c
• From: DDDJ@aol.com
• Date: Mon, 28 Nov 1994 00:40:08 -0500

<<Another indication that "the Word was divine" is not an adequate
rendering of QEOS HN O( LOGOS is that there is a word in Koine Greek that
exactly corresponds to "divine" (QEIOS), and it is not used here.>>
I have never felt that this was a valid argument. Is there not also a word in
Greek for Loving? Yet When John Wrote God is Love, did he mean that God=love
or Love=God. No he meant God is Loving. In the same way John meant that the
Word was divine, (By the way the diety of Christ is no problem for me)
Dennis

• Re: Jn. 1:1c
• From: stcdc <stcdc@cais.cais.com>

• Prev: Request for John 1:1 posts
• Next: Re: Jn. 1:1c
• Index(es):
  • Main
  • Thread