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John 1:1
I am new to the list and an intermediate Greek student.
There has been much discussion of whether "theos" means God
or divine. Since a form of "theos" is used twice in close
proximity, are we to assume that:
1) they both mean God
2) they both mean divine, or
3) one, presumably the former, means God while the latter
means divine?
Though a change of meaning is possible (or unconscious) I
find it hard to believe. Can those of you more learned
explain? By the way, I hold to the first choice. I assume
that John could rely on his reader's acknowledgement of God
and that he could impart knowledge about the Logos vis-a-vis
God.
dbs@cunyvms1.gc.cuny.edu
dbs@cunyvms1.bitnet
D. Anthony Storm