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Re: John 1:1





On Wed, 30 Nov 1994, Gregory Jordan (ENG) wrote:


	It may be the case that "theos" can "be used in more than one way 
in the same sentence."  However, to appeal to the parables of Jesus as an 
example of a genre whose rules of interpretation made understanding 
accessible is, IMHO, a mistake.
	Jesus explained his own use of parables as an attempt to hide 
understanding, not as something his hearers would automatically know how 
to interpret.  See his use of Isaiah 6:9 in Luke 8:10.  It was to those 
who asked (Luke 8:9-10a) that understanding of the parables was given, 
not to the audience at large.
	So, if John was operating with techniques he expected his readers 
to understand, they cannot be compared to the technique Jesus used in the 
parables.

Erick Allen


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