Re: John 8:58

• To: Travis Bauer <bauer@acc.jc.edu>
• Subject: Re: John 8:58
• From: Carl W Conrad <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
• Date: Thu, 1 Dec 1994 14:17:09 -0600 (CST)
• Cc: "Gregory Jordan (ENG)" <jordan@chuma.cas.usf.edu>, Leroy Huizenga 1996 <huizenga@acc.jc.edu>, b-greek@virginia.edu
• In-Reply-To: <Pine.3.89.9412011048.A701-0100000@acc.jc.edu>

On Thu, 1 Dec 1994, Travis Bauer wrote:
> > Yes, although a person who spoke only Greek would not get the yihyeh-Yahweh 
> > pun and so see a proper name here.
> 
> I'm about to show my ignorance here, maybe someone can help set me 
> straight.  My understanding is that it is generally accepted that Jesus 
> spoke Aramaic, language related to Hebrew.  Assuming that John is 
> recording a translation of an accurate story about what Jesus said and not 
> just making up the story or writing some later myth, can we assert that 
> the listeners could pick up the pun?
 
I don't think it would be necessary for the reader to know the 
Hebrew/Aramaic (even assuming that John is "recording a translation of an 
accurate story of what Jesus said ..."); the LXX of Exodus 3:14 reads 
"kai eipen ho theos pros Mwushn 'Egw eimi ho wn.' kai eipen 'Houtws ereis 
tois huiois Israhl, Ho wn apestalken me pros humas.'" We need only assume 
that the readers are familiar with the LXX text. 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO 63130, USA
(314) 935-4018
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu  OR cwc@oui.com

• Re: John 8:58
• From: Travis Bauer <bauer@acc.jc.edu>

• Prev: Re: "Pregnant" consturction
• Next: Re: Cephas
• Index(es):
  • Main
  • Thread