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John 1:1 and Mt. 5:9
eirhnh umin:
En arch hn o logos,
In beginning was the Logos,
kai o logos hn pros ton theon,
and the Logos was with --- God,
kai theos hn o logos.
and God was the Logos.
(John 1:1)
makarioi oi eirhnopoioi, oti autoi uioi theou klhthhsontai.
Blesses the peacemakers, for they sons of God shall be called.
(Matthew 5:9)
How is it possible to translate theos as "a god"
and theou in Matthew 5:9 as "of God" ?
If the decision is to render John 1:1c "a god",
mustn't the rule be carried out consistently
throughout?
If theou is the genitive case of the same noun
(second declension) -- without an article, mustn't
it be rendered "of a god" to be consistent
with the rendering of John 1:1c ??
I am just a beginner here, if I made a mistake
in translation or in transliteration,
please let me know.
Jim Beale