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b-greek-digest V1 #12
b-greek-digest Wednesday, 22 November 1995 Volume 01 : Number 012
In this issue:
Re: Eternity/eternal life
1 Corinthians 15:29 (fwd)
thank you
John 3:16
Re: Fw: Re: Future Perfect Paraphrastic
Rev. 3:10
Greek font for IBM's
----------------------------------------------------------------------
From: David Moore <dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us>
Date: Thu, 16 Nov 1995 16:05:22 -0500 (EST)
Subject: Re: Eternity/eternal life
On Thu, 16 Nov 1995, Mark O'Brien wrote:
>
> Original message sent on Thu, Nov 16 5:22 AM by
> dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us (David Moore) :
>
> > A good question for discussion would be, is AIWNIOS, as it is used
> > in the New Testament, always in reference to quantity of time, or
> > does it sometimes express only quality. For instance, in 1 Jhn. 5:11
> > and 12 where the apostle speaks of ZWHN AIWNION that God has
> > given us in His Son, and whoever has the Son has this life. Is
> > AIWNION in reference to the eternity of the life that God gives, or
> > may we understand ZWHN AIWNION as a certain quality of life
> > without necessary reference to its being everlasting?
>
> And what about Jn 17:3, where Christ defines AIWNIOS ZWH as being
> knowledge of the Father and the Son? I guess that raises the
> question as to what is meant by GINWSKWSIN in this context. One
> would think it is probably more than cognitive recognition, and
> perhaps to be understood in terms of relationship. However one
> interprets GINWSKWSIN here, this verse at least does seem to remove
> AIWNIOS from being in the temporal realm entirely.
>
There is probably no question that AIWNIOS, when used with ZWH,
has connotations of quality. What I wonder is if AIWNIOS in the NT
context is ever devoid of the idea of "everlasting" or if it may be
purely qualitative. I'm not sure this is exactly what Paul Watkins
<102737.1761@compuserve.com> was asking with his original question on
whether "eternity" means "eternity, but this is a question yours truly
has been mulling over for some time. So I hope it is a legitimate
question to insert at this juncture.
David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God
dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us Department of Education
------------------------------
From: Daniel Hedrick <hedrickd@ochampus.mil>
Date: Tue, 21 Nov 1995 15:04:29 GMT
Subject: 1 Corinthians 15:29 (fwd)
My friend Alma passed on the following
solution for 1Cor 15:29.
I have a problem with the explanation
in as far as it relates to two Pauline
passages...
"To be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord"
&
"It has been appointed to man once to die and then the
judgement"
Your Apologetic Approach to resolving this issue
would be greatly appreciated.
Daniel
Dan, you wrote that you were interested in persuing a discussion on
baptism for the dead. James White recently posted some of his theories
on 1 Cor. 15:29 and I thought the following reply stated very succinctly
what I had noted the other night. I forward it to you for your
consideration.
Alma
________________________
Again I have been gone for a week, and again I return to find all
manner of misunderstanding, which appears to have originated with
James. I have seen several posts discussing various aspects of 1st
Corinthians 15:29, none of which show any legitimate thought or
understanding. The verse, taken in context, allows us to arrive at
two firm conclusions:
First: The Corinthian Saints were practicing Baptism for the dead.
Second: Baptism for the dead is a true and correct principle of
the Gospel.
The first conclusion is arrived at in the following manner: Paul is
attempting to prove to the Corinthian Saints the reality of the
literal resurrection from the dead. He essentially states "There must
be a resurrection from the dead. Why would they be baptized for the
dead if there is no resurrection?" There has been a great controversy
over who "they" are, but there is no reason for question. Let's bring
Paul up to our day, and imagine that he were trying to convince you that
there is to be a literal resurrection. What if Paul were to say to you,
"There must be a resurrection from the dead, else why would the Jehovah's
Witnesses baptize for the dead if there were no resurrection?" You would
undoubtedly reply "Stupid, stupid, stupid argument, Paul. Who cares what
the Jehovah's Witnesses do or do not do, and what might that have to do
with what I should or should not believe?" Anyone claiming that the "they"
in 1Cor 15:29 refers to anyone other than the Corinthian Saints Paul is
addressing is at the same time claiming that Paul is a complete idiot.
The only way Paul's argument can carry any weight at all is if it is the
Corinthian Saints he is addressing who are being baptized for the dead.
The second point is easily determined because Paul is an Apostle of
the Lord Jesus Christ, and a preacher of righteousness. Satan and his
minions can, and often do, intertwine their falsehoods with strands of
truth in order to make their lies and misconceptions more palatable.
Satan teaches some truth when it suits his purposes. On the other
hand, Christ and his followers may not use falsehoods in order to
promulgate truth. In other words, Paul cannot say to himself, "This
is a false principle, but they believe it, therefore I will make use
of it and argue as though it were true in order to win the point." We
may therefore safely conclude that baptism for the dead is a true
principle of the Gospel of Jesus Christ.
As to what the principle of baptism for the dead entails, there is
little question about that either, and honest Protestant and Catholic
scholars, even though they have no clue to why it was going on, admit
it. For example, W.J. Conybeare and J.S. Howson in their classic
*The Life and Epistles of St. Paul* have the following to say about
1Cor 15:29:
"The only meaning which the Greek seems to admit here is a reference
to the practice of submitting to baptism instead of some person who
had died unbaptized. Yet this explanation is liable to very great
difficulties (1) How strange that St. Paul should refer to such a
superstition without rebuking it! Perhaps, however, he may have
censured it in a former letter, and now only refers to it as an
*argumentum ad homines*. It has, indeed, been alleged that the
present mention of it implies a censure; but this is far from evident.
(2) If such a practice did exist in the Apostolic Church, how can we
account for its being discontinued in the period which followed, when
a magical efficacy was more and more ascribed to the material act of
baptism? Yet the practice was never adopted except by some obscure
sects of Gnostics, who seem to have founded their custom on this very
passage.
"The explanations which have been adopted to avoid the difficulty,
such as 'over the graves of the dead,' or 'in the name of the dead
(meaning Christ),' &c. are all inadmissible, as being contrary to the
analogy of the language. On the whole, therefore, the passage must be
considered to admit of no satisfactory explanation. It alludes to
some practice of the Corinthians, which has not been recorded
elsewhere, and of which every other trace has perished. The reader
who wishes to see all that can be said on the subject should consult
Canon Stanley's note." [Conybeare and Howson, *The Life and Epistles
of St Paul* pp 412-413, note 7.]
It never ceases to amaze me that this verse is continually brought up,
even though the answer is so straightforward. I might add in
conclusion that James is fully aware of these explanations, as I
brought them up to him personally several years ago. He may claim
that he does not believe them, but what is there not to believe? It
would appear that he continues to maintain his unusual position in
order to oppose Mormonism rather than because of any scholarly or
exegetical evidence. I describe his position as unusual because there
are so few who believe it. This is partially because the effect of
replacing in the Church a person who has died with someone else who is
yet living would be a much more valid argument against a ressurection
than for one, so the interpretation fits neither the text nor the
context of the verse.
Watson
- ----- End Included Message -----
------------------------------
From: Paul Watkins <102737.1761@compuserve.com>
Date: 21 Nov 95 10:53:45 EST
Subject: thank you
i'd like to thank everyone who took the oportunity to comment on AIWNIOS.
i'm sorry i wasn't more clear in my questioning- i was attempting to get
viewpoints on whether or not AIWNIOS means forever and ever or just a long,
undeterminate period of time.
Paul Watkins
Grace College and Seminary
------------------------------
From: Paul Watkins <102737.1761@compuserve.com>
Date: 21 Nov 95 11:20:46 EST
Subject: John 3:16
What are the implications of the first aorist active indicative of
AGAPAW as used in John 3:16? How does this function toward TON KOSMON?
If we assume that God loves this present kosmos then why didn't He use
the present tense? As it is we are left with an undefined aspect and
naturally wonder if the action was performed in the past and has since
ceased- also a theological manouver to reconcile this with 1 John 2:15
where it is a sin to love the present kosmos. Any ideas?
(please respond directly to me as I am not currently subscribed)
Thank you ;-)
Paul Watkins
Grace College and Seminary
------------------------------
From: "Carlton L. Winbery" <winberyc@linknet.net>
Date: Tue, 21 Nov 1995 14:57:36 -0600
Subject: Re: Fw: Re: Future Perfect Paraphrastic
I am reposting this belatedly because it did get on the list post. I am
learning to use Eudora instead of AOL mail.
Bruce Terry wrote:
>On Mon, 30 Oct 1995, Carlton L. Winbery wrote:
>
>>present periphrastic involves the present of EIMI + the present ptc.
>>imperfect peri. " imperfect of EIMI + the present ptc.
>>future peri. " future of EIMI + the present ptc.
>>aorist peri. " imperfect of EIMI + aorist ptc.
>>perfect peri. " present of EIMI + perfect ptc.
>>pluperfect peri. " imperfect of EIMI + perfect ptc.
>This good concise list omits the future perfect periphastic:
>
>future perfect peri. involves the future of EIMI + the perfect ptc.
>
>The most notable example of this is in Matt. 16:19 where we find ESTAI
>DEDEMENON and ESTAI LELUMENON. The NASV translates these as future perfects
>in English "shall have been bound" and "shall have been loosed." Somewhere
>(for the life of me I cannot remember where) F.F. Bruce has written that such
>a translation misses the meaning of the Greek. Unfortunately, he does not go
>on to explain what that meaning is.
You are certainly correct about the future perf. periphrastic. It is in
the Morphology that Prof. Brooks and I wrote. I just failed to pick it up.
>This being the case, I would like to float another idea on B-Greek and see if
>it gets sunk.
>The basic significance of the perfect aspect (linguists should read "stative
>aspect") seems to be action which happens at a single point in time but which
>has continued results. This being the case the future perfect in Greek would
>signify action in the future that produces a continued state. By way of
>contrast, in English the future perfect is used for action which is past
>relative to a future point in time. If I have correctly described the
>significance of the Greek future perfect, a suitable English translation of
>the words above in Matt. 16:19 would be "shall stay bound" and "shall stay
>loosed."
I am a bit troubled by the phrase "at a single point." I would emphasize a
completed action with a continuing result. Most of the time with the
perfect, either one or the other (complete action or continuing result) is
emphasized.
Carlton Winbery
Prof. Religion
LA College,
Pineville,La
winberyc@linknet.net
fax (318) 442-4996
------------------------------
From: Paul Watkins <102737.1761@compuserve.com>
Date: 22 Nov 95 00:16:40 EST
Subject: Rev. 3:10
In Rev. 3:10 a promise is given to the Church of Philadelphia stating that
God will "keep them from the hour of trial" - THRHSW EK THS WRAS TON PEIRASMOU.
As I read this, it promises protection within the world during
the hour of trial. Compared with the only other construction of this
kind in John 17:15, "I do not pray that You take them out of the world, but that
you keep them from evil" - THRHSHS AUTOUS EK TOU PONHROU, that
interpretation seems substantiated. However pretrib writers demand that
THRHSW EK in Rev. 3:10 mean to be removed out of the world, i.e. Rapture before
the hour of trial. It seems to me that every grammar or lexicon
I consult asserts Rev. 3:10 to promise protection from within, not exemption out
of.
Is there anyone who can make a case for THRHSW EK in Rev. 3:10 meaning to remove
out of- in the sense which requires a rapture beforehand?
Please respond directly to me as I am not currently subscribed. Thank you
for your help, this list has been a great help to me for quite some time.
Paul Watkins
Grace College and Seminary
------------------------------
From: "B-GREEK Conference @ omaccess.com" <XINCLXB-GREEK@omaccess.com>
Date: Wed, 22 Nov 95 01:00:51 EDT
Subject: Greek font for IBM's
The attached two Greek fonts are very easy to use and attractive. Use the
character map to find exactly how to add breathing marks and accents. The
most common accent, oxeia, is added by simply using the (/) key. The backward
accent uses the other key (\). Enjoy.
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end
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End of b-greek-digest V1 #12
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