Re: J 1:1 (fwd)

From: Stephen Carlson (scc@reston.icl.com)
Date: Fri Aug 18 1995 - 17:03:06 EDT


Paul Dixon - Ladd Hill Bible Church wrote:
> Recently there has been considerable discussion regarding
> Colwell's Rule, its meaning and abuse, and whether Colwell himself was
> guilty of abusing his own rule.
> In 1975 my Th.M. thesis, "The Signifance of the Anarthrous
> Predicate Nominative in John," argued that it was an abuse of Colwell's
> rule to argue that anarthrous predicate nouns preceding the copulative
> verb tend to be definite. This is the converse of Colwell's rule which
> asserts that definite predicate nouns preceding the copulative tend to be
> anarthrous.

Is this really Colwell's rule? If so, it is of no relevance to
Jn1:1c. In Jn1:1c, if THEOS is to be a predicate nominative,
instead of the subject, am I right in thinking that KAI hO QEOS
HN hO LOGOS must mean "and God was the Word" -- completely ruling
out the possibility of predicate nominative QEOS being arthrous?

Stephen Carlson

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