From: JClar100@aol.com
Date: Thu Sep 07 1995 - 22:15:59 EDT
I have found your several remarks regarding Galatians 1:10 very interesting.
I think I have a better understanding of the verse after your comments and
after personally taking time to read the commentaries of Calvin and Luther on
this verse, along with some others, eg., Spence (last century).
Question: Can "peithw" mean either "persuade" or "please"? I ask this
because the NRSV translates the first part of the verse "Am I now seeking
human approval, or God's?" "Seeking human approval" is diffferent from
"'persuading' or 'convincing' according to men or God?" and/or "persuading
men or God?"
At the same time, in the translation should a greater distinction be made
between "peithw" (v. 10 -- first question) and "areskein" (v. 10 -- second
question)? Is there any diffference between "seeking human approval" and
"seeking to please men?" Is the second question simply a repeating of the
first, absent the reference to "theos." If so, is there a significance in
the use of the two different words? If not, why not make a stronger
distinction between the two in the English translation?
This is not a critique of the NRSV per se. It just points up my continuing
efforts to understand the original language so I can make a reasoned decision
for myself.
Thanks!
JClar100@aol.com
James Clardy
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