Philistines vs. Foreigners

From: Carolivia Herron (cherron@div.harvard.edu)
Date: Tue Oct 03 1995 - 02:11:19 EDT

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October 3, 1995

I'm reading 1 Chronicles in Hebrew and in the Septuagint,
and I'm wondering if there is some political (or other)
reason why the Septuagint uses the Greek work for
foreigner to translate the word Philistine. Can
someone help me in this?

Thanks,
Carolivia Herron
Harvard Divinity School and Hebrew College
cherron@div.harvard.edu

The corridor of the future is long,
is it perhaps infinite.

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