From: David Moore (dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us)
Date: Wed Oct 25 1995 - 15:37:19 EDT
On Wed, 25 Oct 1995, Kenneth Litwak wrote:
> 2. Since Greek work order is not fixed in any significant way that I have
> seen (though my sample size may be too limited, as I've not ventured much
> outside the NT heretofore), I question Gundry's comments on the significance
> of word order. I would accept that in Hebrew SOV is an emphatic word order,
> but in Greek, that could be business as usual. Can we really draw significance
> in Greek from word order?
>
> I'm not trying to take a strong stand here, as I admit to having a limited
> database of experience from which to draw (the NT and a tiny bit of the LXX).
Most any reference grammar contains a section on expected word
order. (See, for instance Blass-DeBrunner #472-#477.) When there is a
deviation from that, it is often significant. One, of course, must take
into account the styles of the respective writers: on this see Turner's
book on style (4th vol. in Moulton's Grammar).
Seems I remember someone on the list recently denigrating
Turner's work on style. If there is something more up-to-date which is
also scholarly and accurate, I'd be appreciate the bibliographic reference.
David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God
dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us Department of Education
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