From: Eric Vaughan (jevaughan@sauaca.saumag.edu)
Date: Tue Oct 31 1995 - 19:13:13 EST
First, I'd like to apologize for beginning a "theological argument"
or opening a "can of worms." That was not my intent at all. I realize
you have your own beliefs about certain scriptures, and I probably
couldn't change them if I tried. What I'd like to do is answer a few
questions that were asked and try to clear up what I tried to state
earlier.
What I meant by "the message was completed" is that all the revelation
that God desired us to have was given. The Christians at that time
only knew "in part"...not in full. It would take time for all of God's
word to be revealed (which, incidentally is not necessarily the
canonization of the scriptures...probably before). I'd like to ask a
question. What was the purpose of miracles, anyway? John tells us
(John 20:30-31) that Jesus' miracles were done and written down so that
we might believe that He is the Son of God. How could He claim to be
from God and command others what to do without miracles to show He
the authority to do so? Why were the apostles given miracles and
the Christians given gifts? Heb. 2:3-4 says it was to confirm that
which was spoken by the Lord, and that it was God's witness to those
things. The word that was spoken has ALREADY been confirmed. What
purpose would miracles have today? Jesus told his apostles in Jno.
16:13 that the Spirit will guide them into ALL (PASAN (to make it look
like a Greek discussion)) truth. Not some or part, but all truth. So
the completion of God's revelation must have come before the death of
the last apostle (John). If the word has already been given and confirmed,
what need do we have for miracles?
Now, back to 1 Cor. I don't see how the perfecting can be referring
to AGAPH. Why would the perfecting of love cause knowledge and
prophecy to be abolished (KATARGHQHSETAI)? After mentioning things that
are in part (knowledge (which, by the way is mentioned as a gift 12:8) and
prophecy), he immediately speaks of something completed. That thing which
is completed is to replace that which is done in part (knowledge, prophecy,
etc.).
I hope I've cleared up what I see in the scripture and tried to express.
I'm always game for opposition, but I think such arguments are not
appropriate on a greek discussion group. If anyone would like to carry
this further, please do it personally. I'm sure the others would
appreciate it. Thanx.
Eric Vaughan
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