Jn 1:1

From: Steve Easley (seasley@netside.com)
Date: Tue Nov 07 1995 - 17:50:52 EST

• Next message: Carl W. Conrad: "Lk 19:1-10: ambiguous present tense"
• Previous message: JOHN HAYDEN, JEWELL, IA: "Greek Grammars"
• Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ] [ subject ] [ author ] [ attachment ]
• Mail actions: [ respond to this message ] [ mail a new topic ]

Is the Moffat translation of this verse,
"..and the word was divine"

being based on the idea that the indefinite article as in "a
god"
or "of a godlike (divine) sort was the logos"?

Have any of you ever heard of the Jehovah's Witnesses using
the
rendering, "...and a god was the word."

Can anybody tell me in a nutshell how Moffat relates to the JW
rendering,
and are they both misleading?

(In other words, is Christ truly made equal to God in this
verse from a
purely non-biased POV if possible). If Iesous is made equal
with God, what
about the next verse?

Thanks in advance,

• Next message: Carl W. Conrad: "Lk 19:1-10: ambiguous present tense"
• Previous message: JOHN HAYDEN, JEWELL, IA: "Greek Grammars"
• Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ] [ subject ] [ author ] [ attachment ]
• Mail actions: [ respond to this message ] [ mail a new topic ]

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:32 EDT