From: Timster132@aol.com
Date: Tue Dec 05 1995 - 01:43:48 EST
rlb4651@televar.com asked...
>Why are the Words "but by every word of God" omitted from the NIV version of
>Luke 4:4 in the New Testament?
>It is found in the King James,the Vulgate,and [(possibly) I cannot read
>greek yet] in the Byzantine texts
The phrase is omitted not only by the earlier Alexandrian witnesses (Alef
and B), but also by W, miniscule 1241, and is missing in the early syriac and
the coptic translations.
The additional words ALL EPI PANTI PHMATI QEOU ("but by every word of
God") appear in later mss (A, Theta, Psi, miniscule families f1 & f13, the
majority of Byzantine mss, and later syriac).
It is hard to explain why this phrase would have been omitted from the
earlier manuscripts if it were original. It is *more* likely that they were
added due to the influence of the Matthew temptation passage (Mt 4:4) and
Deut 8:3 (LXX).
Tim Staker
Timster132@aol.com
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