From: Lee Attema (attema@richmond.infi.net)
Date: Sat Dec 09 1995 - 14:03:04 EST
I wonder about the proper translation of 1 John 3:6 and 9. Some NT scholars
(S. Kubo, C.H. Dodd and I. Howard Marshall ) believe that the translation of
the verbs (sin) in question must be punctiliar. If this is so then the
verses must imply that the Christian cannot sin. If he sins then he has not
known God. See the Bible Knowledge Commentary for development along that
line. However I noted that Dana and Mantey Intermediate Greek Grammar
referenced 1 John 3:6 from the index and identified the use of the present
as expressing a durative not a punctiliar sense. A.T. Robertson's Grammar of
the Greek New Testament references both 1 John 3:6 and 9 suggesting that the
present tenses are durative and that the present infinitive of sin in verse
nine also has a durative sense. If that is so then the better sense would be
that the Christian does not continue to sin, or the Christian does not
practice sin. Blass and Debrunner in their Greek Grammar of the NT suggest
that the sense of the present tense is often durative but do not cite 1
John. I am a novice at Greek and could use some direction since my "sources"
point in two different directions. Also could anyone suggest better
references for understanding the translation/interpretation of the NT than
the grammars above? Any comment is greatly appreciated.
>>Stu,
>> We are all SPIRITUALLY offspring of Satan. If we weren't we
>>would not sin.
>
>Aahhh... the question I've wrestled with- whose offspring are we? Most
>people would say, we are the children of God. But according to John,
>the children of God cannot sin:
>
>"The [one] practicing sin is of the Devil, because the Devil sins from [the]
>beginning. For this the Son of God was revealed, that He undo the works of
>the Devil. Everyone who has been begotten fo God does not sin, because His
>seed abides in him, and he is not able to sin, because he has been born of
>God. By this the children of God and the children of the Devil are revealed:
>Everyone not practicing righteousness is not of God; also the [one] not
>loving his brother." (1 John 3:8-10)
>
>But Paul, in Romans 8:16 insists that we ARE the children of God.
>
>"The Spirit Himself witnesses with our spirit that we are the children of
>God" (Rom. 8:16)
>
>And John wrote:
>
>"Beloved, now we are the children of God..." (1 John 3:2)
>
>So there are therefore some who say it is impossible for us to sin once
>we are saved. Yet John, just two chapters before he penned the words
>I first quoted, wrote:
>
>"If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not
>in us... if we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His
>word is not in us." (1 John 1:8,10)
>
>I see a potential conflict:
>
>1. We are the children of God (Rom. 8:16,1 John 3:2)
>2. The children of God do not sin (1 John 3:8-10)
>-------------------------------------------------
>C. Therefore we do not sin.
>
>The conclusion flatly contradicts 1 John 1:8-10, but the premises are
>true and the form is valid so my argument is sound and the conclusion
>is absolute, right? But it isn't! What's going on?
>
>Options are:
>
>1. We are not yet the children of God until we are completely resurrected
>and clothed in righteousness.
>
> -Disproven by 1 John 3:2.
>
>
>2. We are potentially the children of God but not effectively until the
>resurrection. (Suggested by John 1:12)
>
> -The Bible makes no such potentiality distinction. The language is
> unambiguous.
>
>
>3. By "does not sin" John meant doesn't practice a sinful lifestyle- live
>habitually in sin. This is hinted (some think) by Heb. 10:28.
>
> -Disproven by the clear language of 1 John 3:9 - "is not able to sin"
>
>
>4. Augustinian two-nature theory: one nature, the spirit created by God
>at spiritual birth is the image of Jesus Christ and is that which is born
>of God- IT is the child of God, and cannot sin. The sin nature we still
>retain is Satan's progeny and cannot do anything but sin- when we are
>controlled by the former we are the children of God and we cannot sin
>and when we are controlled by the latter we are the children of the
>Devil and cannot help but sin.
>
>While this view sounds crazy, it seems to be the only one that makes sense.
>I'm not settled on it though, and would like input.
>
>Paul wrote:
>
>"That is: Not the children of flesh [are] children of God, but the children
>of the promise [are] counted for a seed." (Rom. 10:8)
>
>Paul speaks of a person's heirship being spiritual, not physical, so by
>the flesh we are not the children of God but by the spirit we are. This
>supports the last theory.
>
>Really, I don't know, and would appreciate input. Thank you.
>
>Paul Watkins
>Grace College and Seminary
>
>
>
>
>
Lee Attema
attema@richmond.infi.net
3208 Bute Lane
Richmond, VA 23221
(804)353-3093
Christ is risen. He is risen indeed!
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