1 John 1:1

From: Jim Beale (jbeale@gdeb.com)
Date: Thu Dec 14 1995 - 17:44:16 EST

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Hello,

I've run into a few difficulties on 1 John 1:1
(I didn't get very far, eh?)

1. Is EYHLAFHSAN imperfect or aorist? My guess would be aorist,
but can this determined by context alone?

2. Why is EQEASAMEQA in the middle voice? What is the significance
of the middle voice in this case?

3. Why is hO neuter when TOU LOGOU is masculine?

It seems to me that the first verse is rather poetic, and since
the relative pronoun is neuter, can TOU LOGOU mean the physical
person of Christ, or does it make more sense to interpret it as
a reference to the Gospel?

Jim

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