From: Indepen (adc8@columbia.edu)
Date: Wed Jan 03 1996 - 08:51:37 EST
Actually, the question in my mind that prompted the post on hAMARTIA was
this: Greek civilization did not have a strong sense of sin, and the word
for it merely means a "missing of the mark." Given that, is Greek the
wrong language for transmission of Jesus's revision of Judaic tradition?
Is there not some basic incompatibility? Jesus spoke Aramaic and read
Hebrew. Doesn't the Greek text already put us at a remove from what he
actually said, even before the NT is translated into English or any other
language?
In many ways Islam is right to say, "If it is not in Arabic it is
not the Koran."
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:35 EDT