From: David Moore (dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us)
Date: Wed Jan 17 1996 - 18:46:21 EST
On Wed, 17 Jan 1996, Edward Hobbs wrote:
> I don't understand either of Carleton's posts on this.
> (1) Loeb says SE (p. 326) in both printings I have (1946 and 1950).
> Does Carleton have an altered text of some sort? Or was a misprint
> introduced?
> (2) Kirsopp Lake translates: "You I should have held worthy of
> discussion" = "I should have held you worthy of discuission." Either way,
> in English the "you" is a direct object of the verb, just as the SE is in
> the Greek. Are we somehow dealing with different texts?
> The Greek looks very simple and straightforward to me. I'm puzzled
> over the confusion.
The Lightfoot-Harmer edition, published by Baker, has SE also and
no note on the word in the apparatus...
David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God
dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us Department of Education
http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore
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