From: Paul Watkins (104073.3260@compuserve.com)
Date: Thu Apr 11 1996 - 13:49:27 EDT
I would like to know from whence the modern definition of fornication
comes. I understand contemporary interpretation of PORNEIA as being
that sexual intercourse between an unmarried couple. Yet in all the
study I am able to do, I cannot find this included in PORNEIA. I see
prostitution as the foremost thought in PORNEIA, followed up by
incest and adultery - really any unlawful sexual intercourse.
But does premarital sex fall into that category? I don't see it.
Opinions?
Paul Watkins
Grace College and Seminary
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