From: rachel@ms1.hinet.net
Date: Thu Jun 06 1996 - 21:56:31 EDT
From: rachel@ms1.hinet.net
Date: Thu, 06 Jun 96 21:54:01
To: "John R. Baldwin" <jrbaldw@rs6000.cmp.ilstu.edu> Subject: Re:
Greek help on women's issues
In-Reply-To: <9606061138.AA62986@rs6000.cmp.ilstu.edu>
In <9606061138.AA62986@rs6000.cmp.ilstu.edu>, on 06/06/96
at 06:38 AM, "John R. Baldwin" <jrbaldw@rs6000.cmp.ilstu.edu>
said:
---Sisters & Brothers on rm-Bible & b-Greek:
---I told my minister I was on e-mail networks and he asked me
---this question (I am an "information resource person"): He is
---re-evaluating Church of Christ positions on interpretations of
---I Cor 14:26-40 and I Tim 2:11-15.
---I COR 14:26-40.
---The verb SIGAO, in the NIV, is translated "keep quiet" (v. 28)
---and "should stop [speaking]" (v. 30). Finally, "should remain
---silent" (re: women, v. 34). What we are wondering is if what
---the text is saying in v. 34 is that women should cease
---speaking when there is an interpretation or prophecy or
---speaking in tongues. That is, while the women may not have
---been the ones prophesying in the public assembly in NT
---(Philip's daughters, I guess, would have prophecied out of the
---public assembly), this does not mean they were not forbidden
---to speak--just not when men were prophesying, speaking in
---tongues, etc. (Hmm...if one does not believe in the
---continuance of those gifts today, does this verse still
---apply?)
Well this should open a can of worms <grin>
The guys over in the Theology list certainly did not approve of
my viewpoint and I wonder if I will get the same name-calling in
here....... <g>
I will suggest that 34-35 are not Paul`s rhetoric but those at
the Corinthian Church and he is re-playing their opinion. Right
now I can not find my notes
thus I will post once more with more supporting details.... The
whole issue at stake is a hermeneutical ballgame... What I mean
is that the trad. hierarchical position starts from 1 Tim. 2 and
then harmonizes every other passage in the Bible with it! I have
entered enough arguments to prove my point..... On the other hand
I do not quickly jump into the fray and start throwing Gal 3:28
at everyone either. I strongly urge interpreters to start with
Genesis and then work our way thru to the end. In my position I
do not see subordination or God cursing <ish sha Eve was not
given this name until chapter 3 which is interesting since it is
post-fall> the woman and putting her into the trad. role that
she now has. I also surmise that Eve`s situation was and is due
to the Fall since the entire universe is really screwed up
according to Rom 1
Also there are some carvings in some of the catacombs that
display women bishops
Rom 16 went around and around in this list
I have went thru all of the relevant texts as much as I could
living over here in Taiwan
My last major project will be to completely work my way thru 1
Tim 2 but I still do not agree that this should be the proof
text to use for all the other related passages Finally in Eph 5
and other passages I think that the Greek word "one another"
allnlwn has some significant meaning in resolving this issue More
later if this thread continues.....
---I TIM 2:11-15
---Here the text says "A woman in quietness let her learn (in
---quietness: EN HSUCHIA, v. 11, v. 12). Might this refer to
---women not teaching the specific body of doctrine reserved for
---pastorals? I guess key to passage: what does AUTHENTEIN mean?
---John Baldwin, Illinois State University jrbaldw@ilstu.edu
-- Respond to Jim at the following address ---------------------------------------------------- rachel@ms1.hinet.net-----------------------------------------------------------
-- Respond to Jim at the following address ---------------------------------------------------- rachel@ms1.hinet.net
-----------------------------------------------------------
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