definitness of a genetive

From: Kevin J Buchs (buchs@juno.com)
Date: Fri Jun 28 1996 - 08:06:36 EDT

Frankly I have my Hebrew and Greek confused. I can't remember how the
definitness of a genetive phrase works if there is no definite article on
the primary noun but there is on the genetive. My example is Mat. 10:36.

Is it: "the enemy of the man"
Or: "an enemy of the man"

Thanks.
Kevin Buchs, Vicar [ buchs@juno.com ]
St. Paul Lutheran, Blue Earth, Minnesota

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