Gentiles = Sinners? (Gal. 2:15)

From: Eric Weiss (eweiss@acf.dhhs.gov)
Date: Sat Jul 20 1996 - 10:22:26 EDT


In Galatians 2:15, Paul writes:

        hUMEIS FUSEI IOUDAIOI KAI OUK EX EQNWN hAMARTWLOI

Is Paul equating being a Gentile with being a sinner, or is he
differentiating between Gentiles who are sinners and Gentiles who are not
sinners? The structure of the phrase makes me think it's the former:

        hUMEIS [ESMEN] FUSEI IOUDAIOI

KAI OUK

        [hUMEIS ESMEN] EX EQNWN hAMARTWLOI

That is,

        We Paul and Cephas
        by nature i.e., by virtue of our birth/who we came from (could
                        EK FUSEWS, i.e, "from nature," function just as well
                        here, to emphasize the parallelism with EX EQNWN?)
        [are]
        Jews/Jewish depending on whether IOUDAIOI is functioning
                        substantivally or adjectivally--can it be either?
        and
        [we are]
        not
        from Gentiles i.e., by nature/where we came from
        sinners/sinful depending on whether hAMARTWLOI is substantival or
                        adjectival

Thus, the contrast is not between being a Jew and being a Gentile (or being a
sinning Gentile) as such, but between being a righteous person by virtue of
one's being born to the covenant people and doing works of law and being a
sinner by virtue of not being part of the covenant people.



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