From: Jan Haugland (jansh@online.no)
Date: Sat Jul 13 1996 - 06:39:47 EDT
Hello
A friend of mine told me he had read a quite recent article (which may have
been in _Biblica_, _NT Studies_ or some other top journal) about "the Great
City" and "Great Babylon" in Revelation 16:19. The article argued that
grammatically, in this verse, "the Great City" and "Babylon" had to be two
different cities. Now, all exegetic material I have read assumes these to be
the same, which certainly is the natural reading of translations.
Can anyone comment on this?
Cheers,
-- Jan S. Haugland Dept. of Religious Studies University of Bergen
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