From: James H. Vellenga (jhv0@viewlogic.com)
Date: Mon Jul 22 1996 - 08:29:02 EDT
> From: "KULIKOVSKY, Andrew" <AKULIKOV@baea.com.au>
>
> Thanks Stephen for your reply.
>
> You explained it very well. It all makes quite a lot of sense.
> There is just one thing I am not sure about. Your translation
> states:
>
> "but she [Eve] was to be saved [from her disobedience/sin]
> through childbearing [enabling Jesus Christ to be born as a man]."
>
> but in what way is Eve saved (or is to be saved) from her disobedience?
>
At the risk of diverging into theology ...
I think a relevant OT verse here is Gen 3.15, promising enmity
between the offspring of the serpent and that of the woman. Some
see this as a promise of how a child born as a descendant of the
woman will eventually overcome those born of the serpent's own
"descendants". This process of "the childbearing" (there is a
definite article in the Greek of 1 Tim. 2.15) leads eventually
to Jesus, who then reflexively justifies the salvation promised
to all those (including Eve) who have "chosen in" to God's side
in the meantime -- i.e., those who have chosen to remain in
"commitment, love, and consecration, together with clear-headedness."
Regards,
j.v.
James H. Vellenga | jvellenga@viewlogic.com
Viewlogic Systems, Inc. __|__ 508-480-0881
293 Boston Post Road West | FAX: 508-480-0882
Marlboro, MA 01752-4615 |
http://www.viewlogic.com
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