re: Does the NT authors use of "God sent his only son" imply...

From: Mike Phillips (mphilli3@mail.tds.net)
Date: Thu Aug 01 1996 - 18:56:51 EDT

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> From: kcew32b@prodigy.com, on 7/31/96 3:36 PM:

> The idea being that in English the word send implies that you have what
> you are sending in your possession. Does the Greek shed any evidence on
> this issue.
>

Could you clarify what verse you have in mind? John 3:16 uses DIDWMI
(he gave). Is there another verse you are working with?

------
Mike Phillips
Hebrew Union College - JIR

A word is not a crystal, transparent and unchanging;
it is the skin of living thought and changes from day to day
as does the air around us. -- Oliver Wendell Holmes.

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