From: David Wilens (david.wilens@adn.alcatel.com)
Date: Thu Aug 22 1996 - 08:36:01 EDT
Dear EGW EIMI mailing list,
I have a question that's a little off the subject - is that all
right?
Paul Dixon wrote:
> The typical interpretation of the telic or final clause in 2 Thess 2:6
> (eis to ...) relates the clause back to the more distant to katechon
> (what restrains). The subsequent meaning becomes something like this:
> you know what now restrains him so that he may be revealed in his own
> time, that is, you know what is restraining the man of lawlessness from
> being revealed before his time.
>
> This interpretation ignores the fact that normally a telic or final
> clause refers back to its nearest antecedent, which in this case is not
> to katechon, but oidate (you know). If we relate it to its nearest
> antecedent, then the meaning changes drastically: and what restrains (or
> holds sway) you know so that he may be revealed in his time. The idea
> then becomes a fortiori, i.e., their present knowledge of what was
> restraining - that is, the mystery of lawlessness (v. 7) - was the
> guarantee that when the epitome of lawlessness was revealed (the man of
> lawlessness) then they would certainly know him.
No one responded to this so I assume that everyone is in agreement.
Paul,
1. What do you mean by EIS TO relating back to OIDATE - you know that he will
be revealed?
2. What does fortiori mean? I couldn't find it in any dictionary.
3. Are you saying that this verse says that the man of lawlessness restrains
himself until the time of his choosing?
In Moshiach,
David
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