From: Edgar M. Krentz (emkrentz@mcs.com)
Date: Thu Oct 24 1996 - 18:43:31 EDT
>Most NT texts seem to use the term "future more probable" for the same form
>that most classical people call "future more vivid". If I'm not mistaken, a
>couple of RBGs (Really Big Greeks) have stated flatly that it is more vivid,
>not more probable. Yet NT grammars seem to favor more probable.
>
>Is this used differently in NT Greek?
>
>Thanks!
>
>Jonathan
NO. It's just that too many people who deal only with the grammar of the
Greek NT seem to coin new, and often individualistic, grammatical
terminology. If theyk would all adopt, as much as possible, the terminology
of H. W. Smythe's Greek Grammar, there would be fewer problems in teaching
and learning.
Edgar Krentz, New Testament
emkrentz@mcs.com OR ***** ekrentz@lstc.edu
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 East 55th Street
CHICAGO IL 60615
TEL.: 773-256-0752 FAX: 773-256-0782
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