From: Jeffrey Gibson (jgibson@acfsysv.roosevelt.edu)
Date: Tue Dec 03 1996 - 08:05:39 EST
While preparing a brief presentation on Mk 1:1-8 I was struck by the fact
that I really had little understanding of the meaning of the
phrase "for the forgiveness of sins". Knowing how much we 20th
century Westerners import our our understandings into ancient
texts, I began to question the idea, prominent or at least
implicit in interpretations of this phrase, that it refers to a
remission of the penalty of guilt. When I looked up AFIHMI I was
struck by the possibility that the phrase might connote
something like a "release from the bondage of sins" and that
a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins" might
mean a baptism or a turning that will allow us (i.e., John's audience) to
to be freed from the consequences that pursuing the path identified as
sin would otherwise have. Place this within the larger context of
Mark's Gospel, which I take to be at the very least an explanation of
why the war with Rome broke out, why Jerusalem was destroyed, and one
gets a sense that what John was proclaiming was not removal of
personal guilt,
but a way to insure national survival.
Now all of this is just a musing (and perhaps amusing) -- I am thinking out
loud. But I would
appreciate responses. All comments on the meaning of "forgiveness" and
"forgiveness of sins" in the NT would be welcome. Surely the idea of
relase from guilt for presonal transgressions is the least and last of
these meanings?
Jeffrey Gibson
jgibson@acfsysv.roosevelt.edu
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:58 EDT