From: Josef Lowder (joe@whidbey.net)
Date: Wed Dec 18 1996 - 12:46:25 EST
To: cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
Subject: #1 Thanks ... #2 re: Luke 12:01
*First* of all, thank you for your helpful response. In particular, since
I have been lurking on the B-Greek list for about six months, I have much
appreciated the thoroughness, and even more especially, the Christian grace
with which you respond.
While I would like to make the above comment to the list (and still may),
I am writing to you privately in order to express my appreciation of you
and to you personally; and to express a follow-up comment and question.
*First* #2 (I enjoy your subtle humor, please forgive my meager attempt.
I used to have a client, the president of a company, who used to start
almost every sentence with, "The first thing we need to do is ...")
While I have a plethora of questions, I am apprehensive about presenting
them to the list because (a) I do not want to clutter up such a fine
scholarly forum and make myself unwelcome, and (b) since I fear that I
would not even qualify as a miniature-Greek, I am hesitant to come forth
displaying a veritable plethora of folly (to borrow a choice phrase).
But if I may, I would like to ask two follow-up questions in regard to:
>> 8) He began to say to His disciples, first beware
>> 9) He began to say to His disciples, beware first
> Neither of these is impossible; either would be appropriate, since
> (as I said before, the natural assumption is that PRWTON modifies
> PROSEXETE), but I think #8 is clearly preferable for the rhetorical
> emphasis that appears intended here.
This makes sense. However, it seems to me that the kjv, nasb, niv, and nkjv
all go in a different direction and I am very curious about that:
kjv: he began to say unto his disciples first of all, Beware ye of the
nas: He began saying to His disciples first of all, Beware of the leaven
niv: Jesus began to speak first to his disciples, saying: Be on your guard
nkj: He began to say to His disciples first [of [all, Beware of the leaven
Reflecting on the original "options" list:
>> 1) first He began to say to His disciples, beware
>> 2) He first began to say to His disciples, beware
>> 3) He began first to say to His disciples, beware
>> 4) He began to first say to His disciples, beware
>> 5) He began to say first to His disciples, beware
>> 6) He began to say to His first disciples, beware
>> 7) He began to say to His disciples first, beware
>> 8) He began to say to His disciples, first beware
>> 9) He began to say to His disciples, beware first
Seems to me that the niv subscribes to option #5 and the kjv, nas, and nkjv
all subscribe to option #7, using a comma and a couple of interpolative
words to thematically link the word "first" to the timing of what Jesus
said rather than to the priority of the instructions which He was giving.
Thus, all four seem to me to miss a point which I feel is of some import.
Is that an incorrect observation?
Personally, I had preferred option #8 (but had been hesitant to so-state)
before receiving your most helpful explanation.
The second (and I think final) question pertaining to this matter arises
from an observation that it often seems to me that, whereas the nasb, niv,
and others claim to be fully new translations out of the original languages,
in very many instances they seem to actually just follow the kjv.
Is that an incorrect observation?
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