From: Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Date: Mon Jan 06 1997 - 09:50:24 EST
I've been playing "guess the verb" using Nathan Han's "A Parsing Guide to
the Greek New Testament" - I read a passage, and write down the parse codes
for each verb, then compare them with Han.
In Acts 6:11, Han says that AKHKOAMEN is a 2d perfect in the Attic dialect
(1 p. pl. 2 perf. act. ind. Att). But the same form is treated differently
when used in 1 John. Here is what he says for three examples:
Acts 6:11 1 p. pl. 2 perf. act. ind. Att
1Joh 1:1 1 p. pl. perf. act. ind
1Joh 1:5 1 p. pl. perf. act. ind. Att
Is there a reason that these three examples are treated differently?
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie
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