From: Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Date: Fri Jan 17 1997 - 15:58:04 EST
I'm wondering about the difference between the genitive with the article and
without the article.
Eph 1:6 - EIS EPAINON DOXHS THS XARITOS AUTOU
Eph 1:12- EIS EPAINON DOXHS AUTOU
Is there any change in meaning if I start adding/subtracting definite
articles here? I'll try to concoct some examples (I'll use lots of genitive
here to make sure I don't create a nominative absolute by mistake ;-> ):
1. EIS EPAINON DOXHS THS XARITOS AUTOU
2. EIS EPAINON THS DOXHS THS XARITOS AUTOU
3. EIS EPAINON THS DOXHS XARITOS AUTOU <- ungrammatical, right?
4. EIS EPAINON DOXHS XARITOS AUTOU
Are versions 1, 2, and 4 equivalent in meaning? Are they all grammatical? Am
I right in assuming that version 3 is not grammatical?
Jonathan
***************************************************************************
Jonathan Robie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703
Ph: 919.598.5728 Fax: 919.598.6728
email: jwrobie@mindspring.com, jonathan@poet.com
http://www.poet.com <--- shockwave enabled!
***************************************************************************
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:03 EDT