From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Feb 05 1997 - 05:58:02 EST
At 3:37 AM -0600 2/5/97, Andrew Kulikovsky wrote:
>> In sum, I think it has to be admitted that this is one passage where one's
>> theological presuppositions are likely to govern one's preference regarding
>> construction of the words in the clause.
>
>Actually, I think it's more a case of our HISTORICAL PRESUPPOSITIONS
>rather
>than theological ones...
Please note that this is off-list; this is not a matter of interpretation of Greek and therefore really doesn't belong on B-Greek. Discussion of it there could all too quickly lead to a flame-war which would serve no good purpose.
I'm not setting forth an argument one way or the other regarding 2 Tim 3:18, but it does seem to me that historical presuppositions are hardly independent of theological assumptions. The question is whether the Biblical texts are subject to the same (historical) factors that govern other writings. If they ARE, then questions of dating and authorship are legitimate questions to be asked about Biblical texts; if they are NOT, that in itself seems to me to be a theological presupposition. I have no quarrel with those who hold it, but I think it should be realized that exemption of Biblical texts from the historical process is itself exercise of a theological judgment.
Regards, cwc
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