From: JMCGRANAHAN@trevecca.edu
Date: Tue Apr 15 1997 - 18:16:50 EDT
1 Peter was written to the far eastern part of the Roman Empire. It's
inhabitants were more than likely mainly Gentiles, with the paganism still a
viable force within the Roman Empire. If this is the case, could it be that
the writer of 1 Peter, when he referred to "the living stone," was placing
before his readers a stark contrast between "the living stone" and the idols
that that society worshipped? In other words, the idols were made out of
stone, but were life-less, void of any kind of breath. But Jesus, on the other
hand, is the living stone--the one whom God raised from the dead. Could this
be the possible meaning that the author of 1 Peter 2 was referring to?
Jamen
(If this is not the place for this discussion, please let me know--and could
you direct me to the right place for this type of discussion?)
jmcgranahan@maclib.trevecca.edu
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