From: Mike MacKinnon (charis@globalserve.net)
Date: Wed Apr 23 1997 - 19:11:44 EDT
G'day all...
Question from a confused pastor/seminary student...
Consider 1 Cor. 6:9-11:
1CO 6:9 ‘ ouk oidate hoti adikoi theou basileian ou kl‘ronom‘sousin? m‘
planasthe: oute pornoi oute eidšlolatrai oute moichoi oute malakoi oute
arsenokoitai
Currently I am wrestling with the proper interpretation of the word
"arsenokoitai" in this verse. Etymologically, the word seems to be
compound in nature, containing both "arsenos"=man/male, and
"koitai"=beds/marital relationships. The question is, is it fair to
translate this as "male marital relationships" as in homosexual marital
relationships. It would seem to be so, however many of the newer lexicons
leave this word translated merely as "male sexual pervert". This
translation to me seems to be vague, and to skirt the more obvious
translation. However I await your input...
In Christ,
Mike MacKinnon
M.Div. Cand.
McMaster Divinity College
Hamilton, Ontario, Canada
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