From: Frantz Iago (FIP@mccus.org)
Date: Sun May 18 1997 - 15:39:09 EDT
}>Brian E. Wilson (brian@twonh.demon.co.uk)
}>Thu, 15 May 1997 07:11:39 +0100
}>wrote:
}
}>A translation is reversible. That is to say, if one person translates a
}
}>Greek text into English, and another translates it back into Greek, the
}
}>final result would be the original text.
Dear friend,
I work with over 10 different languages and so far I have not found that this
could be possible with modern texts, less with ancient manuscripts. One
example could be to pretend to restaur an original text based on the KJV
(1611), this will give us a very different to that of the MT, LXX, BHS, and the
traditional text used by those translators of the KJV.
}
}>A paraphrase is irreversible. If someone paraphrases the Greek text of
}>Romans 5.1-5 into English, the resultant English would not translate
}>back into the Greek text Paul dictated.
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