From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Fri May 23 1997 - 03:07:14 EDT
Larry Hartman wrote;
>
>What I discovered was in verse 4 a
>Perfect Participle was used with a Subjunctive of EIMI. Can the
>Subjunctive be used as a periphrasis? Or is it just limited to the
>Indicative? I consulted my grammars on hand and couldnt find anything
>one way or the other. Anyone care to comment?
Except for the subj. of OIDA, EIDW, (said to be an old perf. form, the only
perf subjunctives in the NT are periphrastic (2 actives 2 Cor 1:9 & James
5:15 and 10 middle or passives).
> While I am on the topic of EIMI, I read yesterday in AT Robertson that
>the "common EIMI" is typically Aoristic. He provides usage of such in
>John 10:11. This usage is copulative. There are several times where
>the Present and Imperfect EIMI is used in I John 1 which all appear to
>be copulative. Should I therefore take them as Aoristic, or are there
>some further guidelines that I should know about? Anyone care to
>comment?
I do not have Robertson's grammar at home, but if there is a ligitimate
category of the present called "aoristic" I would think that a better
example would be PARAGGELLW in Acts 16:18, "I command you to . . ." I
would tend to call most instances of EIMI in the present as descriptive or
durative. In John 10:11 EIMI is not periphrastic but has a pred. nom.
POIMHN, a noun.
Carlton L. Winbery
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