From: Loomes (loomes@ozemail.com.au)
Date: Wed Jun 25 1997 - 17:16:49 EDT
Hello all,
Someone spoke at church the other day about, as any speaker does,
things the bible says, and what it says we should do.
The 'sermon' raised a question for me.
What basis is there for translating the word "PORNEIA" as
fornication.
He read out a few verses with this word trans. as fornication.
My understand of it was that this translation is outdated and
attitude and predjudice wridden.
The NIV translates is as 'sexual immorality' (which is a MUCH LESS
'here-is-a-line, don't-step-over-that-and-you-will-be-right,
black-and-white-morals veiw at things...)
Fornication means 'voluntary sexual intercourse between unmarried
persons'.
What does 'Sexual Immorality' mean?
I can think of many many ways that one can be sexually immoral without
actually fornicating.
Can anyone share with me in what context the NT writers wrote PORNEIA.
(Surely PORNEIA should be able to include 'non genital' use of
Pornograph for example...)
With Thanks,
Ben.
PS
I desire only technical translational responses lets not get a sexual
standards debate going here...
Romans 5:5
H DE ELPIS OU KATAISCUNEI OTI H AGAPH TOU QEOU EKKECUTAI EN
TAIS KARDIAIS HMWN DIA PNEUMATOS AGIOU TOU DOQENTOS HMIN
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