From: Steven Cox (scox@ns1.chinaonline.com.cn.net)
Date: Mon Jul 14 1997 - 10:03:13 EDT
Is it really possible to define EN ARCHi in John 1:1
with a linear date? (such as 6004 BC? or 6 Zillion BC?)
Unlike Luke's AP ARCHS and Mark's ARCH TOU EUAGGELIOU
there are no linear time references (until v6 anyway).
Is the "other John 1:1" (the epistle) hO HN AP ARCHS..
hO EQEASAMEQA KAI AI XEIRES HMWN any clearer?
What exactly is John 15:27 supposed to mean?
Does hH ARCH KTISEWS TOU QEOU have no link to "beginning"?
And more difficult still.. how does one apply the idea
of linear time to Rev 13:8 TOU ARNIOU ESFAGMENOU APO
KATABOLHS KOSMOU (unless there is something distinctly
conceptual about all uses of that phrase)
But it is an interesting thread, even for us amateurs :-)
Steven
>That is the assumption. First we must define the "beginning" spoken of in
>John 1:1. I believe it quite clearly refers to Genesis 1:1, which speaks of
>the _physical_ creation. This is _after_ the creation immaterial beings,
>as angels. So, time had begun prior to John's point of reference in 1:1, in
>my view.
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