From: Jim Beale (beale@uconect.net)
Date: Sat Jul 12 1997 - 19:47:38 EDT
May I send this to the list?
At 8:11 PM -0400 7/12/97, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>I would emend (or amend) one item in yesterday's submission: I there gave
>"put to the proof" for the sense of ELEGCW, whereas I would agree with you
>that its primary sense in Eph 5:13 must be "rebuke." I was following the
>classical and particularly Platonic usage of ELEGCW which is "put to the
>test to determine whether someone or something is what it/he claims to
>be/is purported to be." In the intervening centuries the negative side of
>that has come to dominance: "show to be false; prove to be wrong"--and so
>that is the sense that should be given it in Eph 5:13.
What about Luke 3:19?
hO DE hHRWDHS hO TETRAARXHS, ELEGXOMENOS hUP' AUTOU PERI
hHRWDIADOS THS GUNAIKOS TOU ADELFOU AUTOU ...
I can only suppose that the difference is that this ELEGXOS was not
efficacious; it was not done by the Light, but merely externally by
the Baptist. It's sort of the difference between the external and
the internal call of the gospel, I guess.
Perhaps there is a parallel between the activity of the Light here
and that of the Paraclete in John 16:8ff? Also, in James 2:9, the
law is ascribed a convicting function in a manner identical to that
of the Light here.
>At this point I am also less than totally confident (so why don't I say I'm
>unsure?), that is: I am unsure that FANEROUTAI and FANEROUMENON ought
>necessarily in this instance be viewed as middle/reflexive rather than
>passive. If I've understood Jim, on the other hand, I rather think he's
>come around to seeing them as middle. If I've got that right, it's very
>ironic, isn't it, Jim?
You are absolutely right. I feel like we are dancing! (You're quite
light on your feet.;-)
Is it at all possible for ELEGXOMENOS to be middle? Admittedly, it
seems unlikely. I could only find a single case of middle verb +
hUPO + ablative, APWLONTO hUPO TOU OLEQREUTROU, in 1 Cor. 10:10. I
really don't understand how APWLONTO functions in that context. In
Numbers 14:26-35 the Lord indicates that the people of Israel will
die and in Numbers 16:44-48 the Destroying Angel causes the death
of 14,700 people. How is Paul using the middle voice there?
Jim
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