From: Rod Decker (rdecker@bbc.edu)
Date: Thu Aug 21 1997 - 17:28:43 EDT
I was just reading an article by P. Kiparsky on the historical present
("Tense and Mood in Indo-European Syntax" *Foundations of Language* 4
[1968] 30-57). In arguing for the pres ind as the 'unmarked' form, he makes
the statement that no verb lacks a present indicative form.
Does anyone think of any exceptions to this statement? (He excludes OIDA as
a present tense inflected as a perfect--I'm not persuaded by that
explanation, but let's leave OIDA out of the discussion for now.) Are there
any other verb forms in Greek that are not attested in the present
indicative?
Rod
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Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800
rdecker@bbc.edu Clarks Summit PA 18411
http://www.bbc.edu/courses/BBS/RDecker/Index.htm USA
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