Re: Nonexistent forms?

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Mon Oct 06 1997 - 15:28:31 EDT


At 1:03 PM -0500 10/6/97, Martin Arhelger wrote:
>Rod wrote
>
>> I have summarized (canonical*) Markan verbal use as follows:
>>
>> Indic Subj Impv Opt Inf Part Totals
>> Aorist 519 166 66 1 109 253 1,114
>> Present 513 38 82 0 87 248 968
>> Impft 293 - - - - - 293
>> Future 115 - - - 0 0 115
>> Perfect 47 1 1 0 3 39 91
>> Plupf 7 - - - 0 0 7
>> Totals 1,494 205 149 1 199 540 2,588
>>
>> - = nonexistent forms
>> 0 = forms not attested in Mark
>>
>> (* = 1:1-16:8 in case your count varies! I have not included
>periphrastic
>> forms)
>>
>> My question is: do any of the forms that I have flagged as
>"non-existent"
>> occur outside the NT? (And if so, which ones?)
>
>
>Using a computer programm (e.g. "bible-works") you will easily find
>examples of forms in the LXX, for example:
>Impft. Subj. in Isa 7:9
>Future Subj. in Isa 10:12

I hate to say this, but if these are marked as subjunctives in any computer
program, there is something wrong with the program.

Isaiah 7:9 LXX KAI EAN MH PISTEUSHTE, OUDE MH SUNHTE (I'd say we have
aorist subjunctives in both clauses here, from PISTEUW and SUNIHMI
respectively)

Isaiah 10:12 LXX KAI ESTAI hOTAN SUNTELESHi KURIOS PANTA POIWN EN TWi OREI
SIWN KAI EN IEROUSALHM, EPAXEI EPI TON NOUN TON MEGAN, TON ARCONTA TWN
ASSURIWN, KAI EPI TO hUYOS THS DOXHS TWN OFQALMWN AUTOU. Here SUNTELESHi
must be an aorist subjunctive. I've yet to see an imperfect subjunctive or
a future subjunctive anywhere in Greek, and I'm very skeptical if such will
be found that doesn't prove to be an error of some sort.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/



This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:31 EDT