From: Kevin and Sandi Anderson (crossroads@sprynet.com)
Date: Wed Dec 03 1997 - 09:17:24 EST
It is often noted that 1Tim 5:9 instructs widows to remain hENOS ANDROS GUNH
("a one man woman"), i.e., remaining celebate/unmarried after having become
a widow. The expression in 5:9 seems to be a precise corollary with that in
3:2: MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA. Therefore, it has been argued that, since
polyandry was not common enough in the Roman world to fall under a general
proscription (and 5:9 does not appear to offer such anyway), the phrase in
3:2 surely cannot be a proscription of polygyny. But although polygamy may
not be the intended target of these verses, it does appear to be logically
excluded. If marriage after widowhood was not countenanced, then how could
the marriage to multiple partners be? Given the trajectory of tradition in
the early church (e.g., cf. Tertullian's treatise on celibacy), these
passages seem to refer to strict marital fidelity to one's ONE spouse, even
after his/her death.
Kevin L. Anderson
Ph.D. Student
London Bible College/Brunel University
Reading at Asbury Theo'l Seminary
-----Original Message-----
From: Brian E. Wilson <brian@twonh.demon.co.uk>
To: b-greek@virginia.edu <b-greek@virginia.edu>
Date: Wednesday, December 03, 1997 7:56 AM
Subject: MIAJ GUNAIKOJ ANDRA - I Tim. 3:2
>Does MIAJ GUNAIKOJ ANDRA in I Tim 3:2 mean that at the time I Timothy
>was written, a Christian man was allowed to have more than one wife, but
>that if he was an EPISKOPOJ, then he should be married to only one
>woman? In other words, were Christian men in New Testament days allowed
>to be what today we would call polygamists? It seems to me that in I Tim
>3:2 it would hardly be said that a bishop should have only one wife
>unless generally a Christian man was allowed to be married to more than
>one woman at the same time.
>
>Putting the question another way, is there any statement in the New
>Testament which explicitly rules out a Christian man being married at
>the same time to two or more women?
>
>I am not personally interested in becoming a polygamist myself! My
>reason for wanting to explore this is that there is considerable
>controversy in the UK about pronouncements by the URC concerning sexual
>partners and the ordained ministry, and all this is due to be discussed
>at an important meeting or the Ecumenical Project of which I am a
>member. What I would like to be able to say at the meeting is that
>there is no doubt that the NT states in such and such a text that no
>Christian man should be married to more than one woman at the same time.
>I had always assumed that there is such a text, but, to my surprise, I
>have not been able to find one. Indeed, I Tim. 3:2 seems to suggest the
>opposite view. Or have I misunderstood the force of MIAJ here?
>BRIAN WILSON
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