From: Albert B. Collver, III (Collvera@sprynet.com)
Date: Thu Dec 04 1997 - 00:21:42 EST
Hello,
Here is how I understand this. I will use Eph 5:31-33 to provide
interpretation for 1 Tim.
In verse 32 Of Eph. 5. Paul says: "This mystery is great. But I am speaking
concerning Christ and concerning the Church." Human marriage is seen as a
shadow of what takes
place between Christ and the Church. What is being compared is the one flesh
union of man and woman with Christ's union to the Church. The logical
conclusion is that a man in the Office whose wife died could not remarry
either. To resolve this, the point of comparison must be seen.
The point of comparison is the one flesh union. While a man may have a
one flesh union with more than one woman -- this is forbidden by the Lord
and would not be used as a comparison for Christ and the Church. The way in
which a pastor's marriage reflects Christ's marriage is the same as how all
human's marriages reflect it -- the one flesh union. If a man's wife dies,
the union is dissolved in death. The New Testament often regards virgins and
widows as one and the same (at least from a practical standpoint). For all
intensive purposes a widow is a virgin after her husband dies (provided that
she is not living according to the desires of the flesh in which case she is
dead). The same is true of a widower. If his wife dies, the marriage bond is
dissolved and he is free. So applied to the pastoral office, if a pastor's
wife dies, it is as if he is not married. If he chooses to marry, it is as
if he was never married before. The mystery still holds. He enters a
one-flesh union with his wife. This then foreshadows Christ's union with the
Church.
In the case of divorce by a pastor, the main issue now is polygamy. For
all intensive purposes, the man has more than one wife. He has a one-flesh
union with two women. The one-flesh union can only be dissolved by death.
Even divorce does not separate the one-flesh union. Christ testifies to
this... "Let man not put asunder..." While Christ does permit divorce on
account of the stubbornness of man's heart, he does not permit this of his
Pastors. The Lord says that an overseer must be the husband of one wife. To
my knowledge no where else in the New Testament is a man told to have only
one wife except in the giving out of the Office of the Holy Ministry. While
other places in Scripture certainly condemn bigamy, this text in 1 Tim
refers to the Office of the Holy Ministry and not to all Christian vocation.
If a man divorces, he has two wives, period. The Lord permits this condition
to exist on the account of adultery but he does not allow it of his men in
the Office. If his wife dies and he remarries, he only has one wife because
death dissolved the first union. Divorce does not.
Dr. Luther in "On the Councils and the Church" was of the opinion that
St. Paul had a wife who died. He writes, "it is assumed that St. Paul had
had a wife, Philipians 4:3, and that she died." (Luther's Works, American
Edition, Vol 41, pg 161). Next he quotes St. Paul as saying that he could
take a wife like the other apostles if he desired. While modern scholarship
does not agree with Luther's exegesis, the point is still made that Luther
sees no problem with a pastor marrying after his wife dies.
1 Tim 3:2 Paul writes "mias gunaikos andra" -- "husband of one wife."
This means only one wife. If the wife were to die, it would be as if he no
longer had a wife -- a widower, a virgin. The one-flesh union is dissolved.
Divorce would not dissolve this, thus he would have two wives.
Sincerely,
Albert B. Collver, III
Graduate Student Concordia Seminary, St. Louis.
-----Original Message-----
From: Brian E. Wilson <brian@twonh.demon.co.uk>
To: b-greek@virginia.edu <b-greek@virginia.edu>
Date: Wednesday, December 03, 1997 6:49 AM
Subject: MIAJ GUNAIKOJ ANDRA - I Tim. 3:2
>Does MIAJ GUNAIKOJ ANDRA in I Tim 3:2 mean that at the time I Timothy
>was written, a Christian man was allowed to have more than one wife, but
>that if he was an EPISKOPOJ, then he should be married to only one
>woman? In other words, were Christian men in New Testament days allowed
>to be what today we would call polygamists? It seems to me that in I Tim
>3:2 it would hardly be said that a bishop should have only one wife
>unless generally a Christian man was allowed to be married to more than
>one woman at the same time.
>
>Putting the question another way, is there any statement in the New
>Testament which explicitly rules out a Christian man being married at
>the same time to two or more women?
>
>I am not personally interested in becoming a polygamist myself! My
>reason for wanting to explore this is that there is considerable
>controversy in the UK about pronouncements by the URC concerning sexual
>partners and the ordained ministry, and all this is due to be discussed
>at an important meeting or the Ecumenical Project of which I am a
>member. What I would like to be able to say at the meeting is that
>there is no doubt that the NT states in such and such a text that no
>Christian man should be married to more than one woman at the same time.
>I had always assumed that there is such a text, but, to my surprise, I
>have not been able to find one. Indeed, I Tim. 3:2 seems to suggest the
>opposite view. Or have I misunderstood the force of MIAJ here?
>BRIAN WILSON
>
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