From: Rod Decker (rdecker@bbc.edu)
Date: Tue Dec 09 1997 - 11:50:06 EST
The syntax of 1 Tim. 6:3-5 is certainly not the easiest in the NT! Vv 3-4
are not too bad, but the ANQRWPWN in the middle of v. 5 puzzles me. Why the
genitive? The two gen. ptcps. (DIEFQARMENWN and APESTERHMENWN) are
obviously related to it. The only thing that might make sense here is a
gen. absolute (the subject does change from the previous verb, GINETAI),
but the middle of the sentence is not a typical syntactical location for
one. Is that a feasible explanation of it here, or am I missing something?
(Maybe something obvious since none of the exeg. commentaries I checked
commented on it!)
Thanks,
Rod
(And thanks, too, for the several msgs. re. the James vol. that I asked
about yesterday.)
_________________________________________________________________
Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800
rdecker@bbc.edu Clarks Summit PA 18411
http://www.bbc.edu/courses/BBS/RDecker/Index.htm USA
_________________________________________________________________
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:36 EDT