From: Daniel Ria–o (danielrr@mad.servicom.es)
Date: Sat Dec 13 1997 - 08:27:17 EST
>B-greekers,
>
>I'm doing a presentation tonight on comparing some eschatological texts,
>and I need a little help. In particular, I'm wrestling with the
>differences between GAMOUNTES KAI GAMIZONTES in Mt 24:38, and EGAMOUN,
>EGAMIZONTO in Lk 17:27.
>
>Now I realize that Matthew's using the pres. ind. act. of GAMEW (to marry)
>and GAMIZO (to give in marriage), respectively; and that Luke's using
>impf. forms for both, with EGAMIZONTO being pass.
>
>So I'm understanding Matthew to be referring to actions being taken by
>grooms and fathers of brides, whereas Luke is referring to actions
>which were taken by grooms and brides (well, passively, anyway).
gami/zontai in Eu.Marc.12.25, Eu.Matt.22.30, Eu.Luc.17.27 seems middle
voice "to marry" (a woman, to a man), different from the act. in
"Eu.Matt."24.38, cf. A.D."Synt."280.11.
gamou=ntes has here clearly the classical meaning "marry" (a man to a
woman). For game/w with a woman as subject cf. *1Ep.Cor*.7.28, and outside
the NT Iust."Nou."97.6 praef. Cf. the "DGE" entry for other very strange
(mostly comical or parodic) cases in earlier litterature.
As for the tense, gamou=ntes kai\ gami/zontes are in the pres-imperf.
participle: *note* that in the participle, the so-called present participle
can cover the functions of a present or an imperfect. Maybe it is not in
fashion now, but in the grammatical literature of the beginning of this
Century it was very normal to speak of the "imperfect participle". This is
the ordinary tense for repetitive actions in the past. In Spanish we have
the same distinction between past tenses in "se casaron", "se casaban".
Valete
___________________________________________________________________
Daniel Rian~o Rufilanchas
c. Santa Engracia 52, 7 dcha.
28010-Madrid
Espan~a
e-mail: danielrr@mad.servicom.es
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