From: Brian E. Wilson (brian@twonh.demon.co.uk)
Date: Sun Dec 21 1997 - 11:46:00 EST
Ulrik Petersen wrote SNIP:
>I have a question about Mk 15,34 versus Ps 22,2, where
>Jesus is quoting David's words while being on the cross.
>... in my copy of the GNT (which is a Nestle-Aland 26), the quote is:
>
>ELWI ELWI LEMA SABAXQANI
>
>My first question is: I suppose this is really supposed to be Hebrew
>and not Aramaic?
According to Vincent Taylor, the words are ** a transliteration of a
Hebraized Aramaic original **. According to W. D Davies and Dale C.
Allison, ** We think Mark's entire line Aramaic. ** According to Donald
Hagner, ** ELWI ** in Mark is ** Aramaic **. According to Morna Hooker,
** the quotation is given in Aramaic ** . According to F. W. Beare **
The cry of Jesus...is given in Aramaic. ** According to Sherman E.
Johnson, ** The quotation from Psalm xxii.1 is in Aramaic, not Hebrew.
** According to Hugh Anderson, the ** Marcan form of Jesus' cry ** is
given ** in Aramaic. ** Accoding to Robert H Mounce, ** ELWI ** is **
Aramaic **. According to David Hill, ** ELOI ** in Mark is ** Aramaic **
. According to E. P. Gould, ** Jesus used Aramaic ** in the cry.
According to B. H. Branscomb, Mark gives the cry ** entirely in
Aramaic. **
I have been unable to find a commentary which states that the cry in
Mark 15:34 is not in Aramaic.
Hope this helps.
BRIAN WILSON
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:40 EDT